John 20:28 Part B

Many will insist that Thomas is calling Jesus “the god of me” in John 20:28, and from this they will assume and add to the scripture that Jesus is Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. They simply ignore the Hebraic application of the words THEOS, EL, and ELOHIM (the Greek and Hebrew words that are usually rendered as “god” or “God”) as applied to others than the Most High, Yahweh. Once one does a study in the scriptures of the Hebraic usage of these words, it becomes apparent that they can be used of others than Yahweh to denote power, strength, might, rulership, etc., rather than as a title for Supreme Being.

If Thomas was indeed calling Jesus “the god of me” in John 20:28, this would not be the rule in the scriptures, for no where else is the expression, “the god of me”, or “the god of us”, applied to Jesus. The general rule of scripture is to distinguish between Jesus and his God. * However, Thomas would certainly not be blasphemous in calling Jesus “the god of me”, but if this be the application, I would render it “the strength/ruler of me”, in accordance to the usage of EL and ELOHIM in the Hebrew scriptures when used of others than Yahweh.
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*http://rlbible.com/jesus/jesusnotyhwh.html

In the case of trinitarians, there is certainly nothing there that gives reason to think that the expression used means that Jesus is a person of his God; thus, in addition to adding to the scripture the assumption that Jesus is Yahweh, they would have to also add to that the assumption that Jesus is a person of Yahweh. However, in accepting the leading of God spirit by means of the things that God has revealed in the scriptures, the default reasoning would be to look upon the expression Thomas used in John 20:28 in light of the usage of the Hebraic tradition that would apply the word to one who is not the Most High, which tradition does not have to be added to scripture as does the trinity and oneness doctrines, for the tradition is actual scripture. Thus, for one who would view THEOS, EL and ELOHIM as applied to others than Yahweh, the default assumption would be that Thomas is not calling using THEOS in John 20:28 to designate Jesus as the Supreme Being, but rather that Thomas is designating Jesus as his mighty one, as a ruler.

More more concerning the Hebraic usage of EL, ELOHIM and THEOS:
http://rlbible.com/jesus/hebraictitles.html

Other references concerning John 20:28:
http://rlbible.com/forum/index.php?topic=260.0
http://rlbible.com/forum/index.php?topic=118.0
http://rlbible.com/jesus/john-20-28.html

In service of Jesus and his God,
Ronald

John 20:28 – The God of Thomas

Regarding John 20:28.

The general rule all through the New Testament is to distinguish between “Jesus” and his “God”. In only a very, very, few instances is THEOS actually applied to Jesus. Because of this, and due to Thomas’ use of the definite article twice in the Greek as it reads in John 20:28, some scholars have questioned whether Thomas actually meant the second phrase to be applied to Jesus. The most literal rendering of Thomas’ words to Jesus are “THE LORD [OF] ME AND THE GOD [OF] ME.” If Thomas were referring to one person, then he only needed to have used the definite article once. This is demonstrated in a few verses before John 20:28, in John 10:17:

legei autee ieesous mee mou haptou oupw gar
IS SAYING TO HER JESUS NOT OF ME BE TOUCHING, NOT YET FOR
3004 0846_6 2424 3361 1473_2 0680 0681 3768 1063
anabebeeka pros ton patera poreuou de pros
I HAVE ASCENDED TOWARD THE FATHER; BE GOING BUT TOWARD
0305 4314 3588 3962 4198 1161 4314
tous adelphous mou kai eipe autois anabainw
THE BROTHERS OF ME AND SAY TO THEM I AM ASCENDING
3588 0080 1473_2 2532 1511_7 0846_93 0305
pros ton patera mou kai patera humwn kai theon
TOWARD THE FATHER OF ME AND FATHER OF YOU AND GOD
4314 3588 3962 1473_2 2532 3962 4771_5 2532 2316
mou kai theon humwn
OF ME AND GOD OF YOU.
1473_2 2532 2316 4771_5

Notice that the Jesus only used “one” definite article, thus showing that only one person is being spoken of. Likewise, if Thomas had only been referring to one person in John 20:28, then only one definite article would have been needed.

Additionally, there is no custom of calling Jesus “my God” or “our God” anywhere in the NT. One has to look to later writers to find such a custom.

Nevertheless, as I have shown elsewhere, the word THEOS can apply to Jesus, even as Jesus applied the plural of THEOS to the sons of God in John 10:34,35 (See Psalm 82), without having any meaning that Jesus is his God.

http://rlbible.com/forum/index.php?topic=118.0

http://rlbible.com/jesus/john-20-28.html

http://rlbible.com/jesus/hebraictitles.html

In service of Jesus and his God,

Ronald

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