The God of Jesus — The Only Most High

Many people do not think of Jesus as having a God, since they believe that Jesus is the only true God. However, the Bible shows that Jesus believes that the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is his God. Despite the claims of many who said that he did, Jesus never claimed to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. All of the claims people make that would have any scripture saying that Jesus is Yahweh actually assumes that thought due to the spirit of human imagination by which assumptions have been formulated, and those assumptions have been placed over the scripture to make it appear that the scripture is declaring Jesus to be Yahweh (Jehovah), the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

Jesus has One who is the Supreme Being over him; Jesus is not his Supreme Being whom he worships, prays to, and who sent him, and whose will he carried out in willful obedience. (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 [Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4]; Matthew 4:7 [Deuteronomy 6:16]; Matthew 4:10 [Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8]; Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 [Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23]; Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12)

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus was sent by Yahweh, speaks for Yahweh as his unipersonal God and Father, represents Yahweh, and was raised and glorified by the unipersonal God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jesus never claimed to be, nor do the scriptures present Jesus as, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, whom Jesus represents and speaks for. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 22:32; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; 12:26; Luke 13:35; 20:37; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13-26; 5:30; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus is son of the unipersonal Most High, Yahweh. Jesus is never spoken of as the “Most High”; he is not the only Most High Yahweh of whom he is the son. — Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16.

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is never once presented in the Bible as more than one person; He is always presented as one person. In the Bible, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob is always presented unipersonally as separate and distinct from His son. His Son is not once presented as the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. — Acts 3:13-26; Hebrews 1:1,2.

The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus is son of the unipersonal Most High, Yahweh. Jesus is never spoken of as the “Most High”; he is not the only Most High Yahweh of whom he is the son. — Genesis 14:22; Psalm 7:17; 83:18; 92:1; Luke 1:32; John 13:16.

If Jesus is the Most High, then the Most High and another Most High is over the Most High, and thus you have two Most High, one Most High that is not as Most High and the other Most High, in which case, you really would not have two Most Highs, since the very fact that one Most High is higher than the other Most High would render that one not the Most High.

For more information, please see:

There is Only One True God

The Unipersonal God Spoke Through His Son

Does God Share His Glory as Most High With Jesus?

Revelation 1:1,8 and the Unipersonal God

The God of Jesus Speaks

Far Above All Rule

“Most High” Scriptures

Did Jesus Really Say that the Father is the Only True God?

The Logos Was Theos

The God (Supreme Being) of Jesus

“I am” (Ego Eimi)

John 20:28 Part B

Many will insist that Thomas is calling Jesus “the god of me” in John 20:28, and from this they will assume and add to the scripture that Jesus is Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. They simply ignore the Hebraic application of the words THEOS, EL, and ELOHIM (the Greek and Hebrew words that are usually rendered as “god” or “God”) as applied to others than the Most High, Yahweh. Once one does a study in the scriptures of the Hebraic usage of these words, it becomes apparent that they can be used of others than Yahweh to denote power, strength, might, rulership, etc., rather than as a title for Supreme Being.

If Thomas was indeed calling Jesus “the god of me” in John 20:28, this would not be the rule in the scriptures, for no where else is the expression, “the god of me”, or “the god of us”, applied to Jesus. The general rule of scripture is to distinguish between Jesus and his God. * However, Thomas would certainly not be blasphemous in calling Jesus “the god of me”, but if this be the application, I would render it “the strength/ruler of me”, in accordance to the usage of EL and ELOHIM in the Hebrew scriptures when used of others than Yahweh.
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*http://rlbible.com/jesus/jesusnotyhwh.html

In the case of trinitarians, there is certainly nothing there that gives reason to think that the expression used means that Jesus is a person of his God; thus, in addition to adding to the scripture the assumption that Jesus is Yahweh, they would have to also add to that the assumption that Jesus is a person of Yahweh. However, in accepting the leading of God spirit by means of the things that God has revealed in the scriptures, the default reasoning would be to look upon the expression Thomas used in John 20:28 in light of the usage of the Hebraic tradition that would apply the word to one who is not the Most High, which tradition does not have to be added to scripture as does the trinity and oneness doctrines, for the tradition is actual scripture. Thus, for one who would view THEOS, EL and ELOHIM as applied to others than Yahweh, the default assumption would be that Thomas is not calling using THEOS in John 20:28 to designate Jesus as the Supreme Being, but rather that Thomas is designating Jesus as his mighty one, as a ruler.

More more concerning the Hebraic usage of EL, ELOHIM and THEOS:
http://rlbible.com/jesus/hebraictitles.html

Other references concerning John 20:28:
http://rlbible.com/forum/index.php?topic=260.0
http://rlbible.com/forum/index.php?topic=118.0
http://rlbible.com/jesus/john-20-28.html

In service of Jesus and his God,
Ronald

“I am” in John 8:58

John 8:58 “Jesus said … Before Abraham was, I AM”

It is being claimed regarding John 8:58 that “I AM” used by Jesus “was the name God used for Himself when talking to Moses (Exodus 3:14) and this is why the Jews wanted Jesus dead … because He made Himself equal with God. ” Some claim that Jesus was saying that he had been existence for eternity past, and thus that he was never created. The purpose is to make the claim that Jesus is a person of triune God. Actually, there is nothing here, or anywhere else in the Bible, about God existing as three separate and distinct persons. Such an idea has to be added to, and read into, what Jesus said.

Was Jesus in John 8:58 quoting from Exodus 3:14? The name in Exodus 3:14 by which Yahweh spoke of himself in its full form is usually transliterated as “EHYEH ASHER EHYEH” or “EHJEH ASHER EHJEEH”. Its short form, which also appears in Exodus 3:14 is simply EHJEH. Was Jesus saying in John 8:58 that his name is EHYEH? Actually, no. The expression in Greek that Jesus used is often transliterated as EGO EIMI. Did Jesus say that this was his name? No, there is no discussion concerning Jesus’ name in John 8:58 nor anywhere in the context. Rather, the discussion is concerning the age of Jesus.

Jesus expressly shows that he is not the only true God who sent him in John 17:1,3. Since there is only one true God, then Jesus, being sent by the only true God, is not the only true God. The only true God who sent Jesus is the One who identified Himself as EHYEH ASHER EHYEH in Exodus 3:14,15.

Exodus 3:14 – God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM [EHYEH ASHER EHYEH],” and he said, “You shall tell the children of Israel this: “I AM [EHYEH] has sent me to you.”

Exodus 3:15 – God said moreover to Moses, “You shall tell the children of Israel this, ‘Yahweh [Jehovah], the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever, and this is my memorial to all generations.

EHJEH and JEHOVAH are simply two different forms of the same name. EHJEH is in the first person of the verb, and JEHOVAH represents the third person of the same verb.

The only true God, by means of his Holy Spirit through the Scriptures, reveals that it is Himself, Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, who sent Jesus, and who anointed Jesus, and whom Jesus worshiped and prayed to as his God. — Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 (Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4); Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 (Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8); Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 (Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23); Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 17:1,3; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12.

Indeed, the prophecy states that the Messiah was to shepherd and to stand in the name of his God, Jehovah. (Micah 5:4; Ephesians 1:3) The “born” part of firstborn in Colossians 1:15 shows that he was brought forth in existence before the sons of God (Job 38:4-7) that God created by means of his firstborn Son. So was Jesus claiming to be his God in John 8:58? Is there any link between John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14? Only as can be seen by the way the translators and others would make such a link. Of course, Jesus did not say, as did the only true God in Exodus 3:14, that his name is EHJEH, nor was he speaking about his name at all, but rather he was talking about his existence before Abraham. While he was speaking of his existence before Abraham, he did not say that he had been existing for eternity past before Abraham.  Indeed, if that is what he meant, he could have left Abraham out, and simply stated he had always been existence.

Could it be that Jesus was quoting the Greek Septuagint Version (LXX) of Exodus 3:14 when he says EGO EIMI in John 8:58? Hardly, since in the Greek Septuagint Version, the short name of EHYEH is rendered as HO OHN, not EGO EIMI. The full form is rendered as a sentence: EGO EIMI HO OHN, which means “I am the being”. Thus the Septuagint gives EGO EIMI a predicate, but the short form is simply HO OHN, “The Being”. So if Jesus quoted the LXX, he would have used HO OHN, not EGO EIMI, which, of course, in context would have made no sense at all. Further, if he were quoting the LXX from the long form EGO EIMI HO OHN, then he left the subject and verb “I am” without a predicate, which indicates further that he was not quoting the LXX.

Actually, in the Greek, what scholars have labeled as a present indicative active can be used in a past setting to denote a continuous condition originating in the past and continuing into the present. In English such is often expressed in some form of the past tense, as in the case of John 8:58: “I was”, or “I have been”, etc. (See John 14:8,9) Thus Moffatt renders John 8:58 as

“Truly, truly I tell you,” said Jesus, “I have existed before Abraham was born.”

So, what Jesus was saying is very simple: “I have/had been existing since before Abraham was.” There is no need to imagine, assume, add to, and read into what Jesus said that he was claiming to be EHJEH of Exodus 3:14, or that he was claiming that he had always existed from eternity past.

For more information concerning John 8:58, and “I am” in other scriptures, see: Ehjeh and I am
For more information concerning Jesus as being a creature, see: God’s Creation Through Jesus

To obtain a copy of the book, The Atonement Between God and Man:
CLICK HERE

How could Jesus remain sinless?

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The question has been asked: If Jesus is not Yahweh, and was simply a man, how is it that Jesus was able to remain sinless cradle to grave when neither Adam nor Eve could do so even for a short time?

Jesus had ample time to learn from his Father before he came to the earth. He was “sanctified” and “sent into the world” of mankind, which implies that he was perfectly prepared for this experience before being sent by the only true God “into” the world of mankind. As a human, however, it appears possible that he was led by the spirit to draw upon this knowledge as needed, similar to the manner that the holy spirit was sent as a helper to the apostles to remind them of the things Jesus had already taught them. Technically, Jesus could have sinned as did Adam, but the scriptures inform us that he always obeyed his God, and was without sin.

After his baptism, we are informed that Jesus had unlimited access to the holy spirit. Before he began his ministry, he had been obedient, but there is no record of his being persecuted for his obedience. The added strength of the holy spirit could also have provided another way for him to remain obedient even while suffering.

For further study, see:
http://rlbible.com/atonement/